How can Salat be finished - 62:10??

by Ilyas Niazi, United States, Friday, June 01, 2012, 22:21 (2580 days ago) @ Quasim Hamdani

thanks for the response sir.

You mentioned in your writing that

"Every messenger came with a message - that is why they are called messengers. We also know that the message given to each messenger is the same, barring specific variations for the time period in question. Practices of Salaat, Zakaat, Saum, and Hajj had existed prior to the prophet. The language and the forms were different, but they served the same purpose as they did during the time of the prophet. Torat and Injeel are the two books mentioned in the Quran - these are predecessors of the Quran"

But the Quran tells us the Torat and Injeel had different laws than the Quran.

5:48 - We have made for you a law and a clear way
The word used for law is SHIR'ATAN.
http://corpus.quran.com/wordbyword.jsp?chapter=5&verse=48

I checked also with other translations:
http://www.islamawakened.com/quran/5/48/default.htm


If the laws or commandments were different, and salaat was based on their individual books, Torat and Injeel, then how can the salaat be the same?

This means they had different salaat. But the Quran says that salaat was prescribed for previous people in the same way as Muhammad (SA) people. So the nature of the salaat must be the same and cannot be based on their books. Salaat's nature then must mean something else?


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