Is Namaaz Salaat?

by Zara, London (UK), Wednesday, July 11, 2012, 00:40 (2511 days ago) @ jawaid ahmed,uk
edited by Quasim Hamdani, Friday, July 13, 2012, 13:37


I am in agreement with you regarding words having many meanings. However when placing them in context,their meanings can be understood.

I am not restricting the word sujood to only one meaning across all verses.
I am suggesting that the word 'sujood' means to prostrate when applied to humans. The sujood when it comes to God means to bow down to Him as an act of worship in the capacity as His servants.

It is clearly not the meaning in the case of 16.49. Also in verse 12:100, Prophet Joseph's parents fall down in prostration to him. Clearly it is not to worship him.

Let me provide another example with the word ‘mutashabih'. Rather different from 'sujood', this word in fact can have opposite meanings depending what context it is being used:

"God has revealed the best statement, a Book obscure (mutashabihan) ..."

Compare this with:

"He it is Who has revealed to you the Book: In it are verses clear ('muhkamatun') they are the foundation of the Book and others are obscure ('mutashabihatun')..."

Here in contrast to the word 'muhkamatun' (clear/decisive), 'mutashabihatun' would mean 'obscure'

Now if I applied only one meaning to this word, I could in effect say that in 39.23:

"God has revealed the best statement, a Book with its parts obscure(mutashabihan) ..."

I would therefore be making a complete contradiction to 3:7, in effect, saying that the Quran is an obscure book!


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