by Damon, Pennsylvania, USA, Sunday, August 04, 2013, 21:28 (2142 days ago) @ Waqas

First of all Waqas unlike your friend UQ who had something to lose by providing the page number of Wright's book when he interjected in our discussion, everyone is free to look up those particular words in ANY DICTIONARY they choose to verify what I have said. It doesn't have to be Hans Wehr or Lane's Lexicon. I merely stated that to let it be known that contrary to what W. Wright says in his grammar book there ARE plural forms of those words he listed and they DO come from the same root as their singular counterpart. I wouldn't be foolish enough to make that statement without seeing those words with my own eyes and I let you all know WHERE I have seen what I stated.

Second of all, UQ had something to lose and something to hide by posting THAT LIST OF WORDS from Wright's grammar book without listing the page number and volume because he knew that if he did and others investigated that reference, they would have seen what I have seen and that is Mr. Wright was not making a claim that those words do not have plural forms with the same roots as their singular counter forms; he was merely pointing out a practice in which Some Arabs will use a plural form of words of that have different roots of the singular form they are used to saying. Like the plural word Bilaad being used to mean "towns" or "cities" opposite the singular word Madinah for one city even though Mudun is Madina's plural form. Also Balad is used to mean a country as well.

Third of all, I have to say it to you AGAIN. I do not believe in dictionaries or lexicons of so-called Classical Arabic! I've said this to you before at free-minds. Arabic is Arabic. It is a living language which has always been alive. It did not die and came back to life like Hebrew. It did not die permanently like Latin or Sanskrit. Also, I wish to remind you Yet Again that I do not believe in the the grammatical rules of so-called Classical Arabic. If these are ideas you wish to continue subscribing to then be my guest. I don't buy it. Must I also post another link from that free-minds thread where your friend UQ made a claim of the Arabic word ما "Maa" according to Classical grammar and my refutation of that ridiculous claim?

There was never such thing as a "Quraish" tribe. There are people who make claims to an ancestral connection to a tribe which never existed. I think it is quite comical that there are so called "Branches" of this Quraish tribe (Banu Abd Manaf, Banu Muttalib and Banu Asad just to name a few) while the original, highly reputed, oft envied and magnificent tribe COMPLETELY disappeared off the face of the earth. So there was no and is no such thing as a Quraish dialect, so The Arabic Quran is not based on the dialect of a non existent tribe. If you learn enough MSA and Spoken Arabic and then reinvestigate The Quran you will come to see that there are "holes" in the idea of "Classical" grammar or Classical Dictionaries.

One unique thing about Arabic is that it is based on a system of roots. The strength of The Arabic Language lies in its system of roots. THIS HAS NEVER CHANGED NOR WAS IT INTERRUPTED THROUGH OUT ITS LIFE AND EXISTENCE!. Add to this the FACT that Arabic was ALWAYS a SPOKEN language and it was spoken BEFORE The Quran was written. The written word is just an expression of that which is spoken, so the written would have to reflect how it is spoken as well. And add another fact that through out the history and existence of The Arab Peoples all the way up to the present day No One has ever spoken nor do they speak now so-called "Fushaa" or MSA. So-called Classical Arabic as well as Modern Standard Arabic are arbitrary constructions of a language which are both false and inaccurate; not to mention just plain unnatural. If the Arabs EVER spoke according to the mandates of Classical Arabic then I have to say the same thing I just said about the Quraish tribe. Where Are These Arabs and Whatever Happened To Them That They No Longer Exist On Earth?

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